COMLEX-USA Level 2 CE Cognitive Evaluation Practice Test
Gana confianza para COMLEX-USA Level 2 CE Cognitive Evaluation. Practica los conceptos, comprende las respuestas y refuerza tus conocimientos pregunta a pregunta.
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COMLEX Level 2 cognitive examination covering clinical sciences with osteopathic medicine applications for osteopathic medical students. Administered by National Board of Osteopathic Medical Examiners as a linear computer-based (levels 1, 2-ce, 3 at prometric); osce (level 2-pe, suspended) format exam. Key domains include Clinical Presentation-Based Assessment, Diagnosis, Health Promotion and Disease Prevention and Osteopathic Principles in Clinical Setting. The exam consists of 400 questions over 540 minutes.
Preguntas de Muestra
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A 64-year-old man presents with fatigue and dyspnea on exertion. CBC: hemoglobin 9.2 g/dL, MCV 72 fL. Iron studies: serum iron 32 mcg/dL (low), TIBC 480 mcg/dL (high), ferritin 9 ng/mL (low). He has no known menstrual loss (he is male) and no obvious bleeding. According to current AGA and ACG guidance on iron-deficiency anemia, which is the MOST appropriate next diagnostic step?
A 42-year-old woman has ascending weakness, areflexia, and paresthesias 10 days after diarrheal illness. Vital capacity is declining but sensation is mostly intact. What is the most appropriate disease-directed treatment?
A 72-year-old woman from a long-term care facility presents with fever 39.4C, hypotension (BP 78/52 mmHg), tachycardia (118 bpm), tachypnea (RR 26), confusion, and lactate 4.2 mmol/L. She has a urinary catheter and a productive cough. Blood cultures are obtained. According to the 2021 Surviving Sepsis Campaign guidelines, which combination MUST be completed within the first hour ("hour-1 bundle")?
A 71-year-old man with atrial fibrillation on warfarin presents with acute onset of right-sided weakness and aphasia 90 minutes ago. Last-known-well time is documented. INR is 1.4. According to current AHA/ASA guidance, which initial imaging strategy is MOST appropriate to determine eligibility for IV thrombolysis?
A 68-year-old man with hypertension, hyperlipidemia, smoking, and atypical chest discomfort has a pre-test probability of obstructive coronary disease estimated at 50 percent. He undergoes exercise treadmill stress testing without imaging. The result is described as "non-diagnostic" because he was unable to achieve target heart rate (only 70 percent of age-predicted maximum). Per 2021 AHA/ACC chest pain guidance, what is the MOST appropriate next step?