NBEO Treatment and Management of Ocular Disease (TMOD) Practice Test
Gana confianza para NBEO Treatment and Management of Ocular Disease (TMOD). Practica los conceptos, comprende las respuestas y refuerza tus conocimientos pregunta a pregunta.
Probar una preguntaDescripción y detalles del examen
El examen de práctica NBEO Treatment and Management of Ocular Disease (TMOD) es un recurso preparatorio crítico para los optometristas que buscan la certificación de la National Board of Examiners in Optometry (NBEO). Este examen de práctica está diseñado meticulosamente para reflejar el rigor y el alcance del examen oficial TMOD, que evalúa la capacidad de un candidato para diagnosticar, tratar y gestionar una amplia gama de condiciones oculares y sistémicas. Al cubrir enfermedades del segmento anterior, farmacoterapia del glaucoma, farmacología ocular, enfermedades del segmento posterior y gestión de enfermedades sistémicas, este examen asegura que los profesionales sean competentes en la toma de decisiones clínicas basadas en evidencia.
Preguntas de Muestra
Elige una respuesta y consulta la explicación para ver cómo funciona la práctica.
A 55-year-old woman with asthma and newly diagnosed primary open-angle glaucoma has untreated intraocular pressures of 28 mm Hg OU and moderate cupping with corresponding field loss. She uses albuterol as needed. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial agent?
A 63-year-old woman with primary open-angle glaucoma has been well controlled on latanoprost for 6 years. Recent Humphrey visual fields show progression of a superior arcuate defect in the right eye despite intraocular pressures consistently in the low teens. She has excellent compliance and no medication side effects. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?
A 68-year-old man with primary open-angle glaucoma controlled on latanoprost for 4 years develops increasing conjunctival hyperemia, periocular skin darkening, and lengthening of his eyelashes. He is bothered by the appearance. Intraocular pressure remains at target. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?
A 66-year-old woman with exfoliative glaucoma and prior SLT has used bimatoprost and timolol for 4 years. IOP is 16 mmHg but she has new medication-related periorbitopathy with deepening superior sulcus and lash growth asymmetry. Which option best preserves IOP control while reversing cosmetic side effects?
A 29-year-old female daily disposable contact lens wearer presents with acute onset severe left eye pain, photophobia, and tearing that began 12 hours ago. Best corrected visual acuity is 20/20 OD and 20/50 OS. Slit-lamp examination reveals a classic dendritic epithelial lesion with terminal bulbs that stains brightly with fluorescein on the left cornea. No anterior chamber reaction or stromal infiltrate is present. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment?